Home/Quiz/Free ORE Part 1 Practice Questions Quiz Free ORE Part 1 Practice Questions Quiz Welcome to your Free ORE Part 1 Practice Questions Quiz 1. A 72-year-old woman taking oral alendronic acid for osteoporosis for the past 6 years requires extraction of a non-restorable mandibular first molar. She has no history of radiotherapy to the jaws or previous medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ). According to current UK risk-management principles, what is the most appropriate approach? Avoid extraction completely because it is absolutely contraindicated. Stop the bisphosphonate for 3 months before extraction. Proceed with the extraction after discussing the risk of MRONJ, obtaining informed consent, using an atraumatic technique, and ensuring appropriate follow-up. Perform hyperbaric oxygen therapy before extraction. Refer every patient on oral bisphosphonates to a hospital oral and maxillofacial surgery unit. None 2. A 45-year-old man sustains a laceration over the right parotid region following facial trauma. On examination, he is unable to wrinkle the right side of his forehead or fully close his right eye. The lower facial muscles on the same side are also weak. Which nerve is most likely damaged? Trigeminal nerve (CN V) Facial nerve (CN VII) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) Vagus nerve (CN X) Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) None 3. A 7-year-old child presents 1 hour after falling at school and fracturing a maxillary permanent central incisor. Clinical examination reveals a crown fracture with a small pink spot visible at the centre of the fracture and bleeding from the exposed pulp. The tooth is not mobile, and there are no signs of root fracture. What is the correct diagnosis and immediate management? Uncomplicated crown fracture – Restore the tooth with composite resin. Complicated crown fracture – Perform a partial (Cvek) pulpotomy and restore the tooth. Crown-root fracture – Extract the tooth immediately. Enamel fracture – Smooth the sharp edges only. Root fracture – Splint the tooth for 4 weeks without pulp treatment. None 4. A 45-year-old patient submits a formal written complaint to a dental practice regarding the treatment they received during a recent appointment. The patient states that they are dissatisfied with the care provided and requests an explanation. According to good professional practice and GDC guidance, what is the most appropriate response? Acknowledge the complaint promptly, investigate it fairly, respond openly and politely, and follow the practice's complaints procedure. Ignore the complaint unless legal proceedings are initiated. Refuse to discuss the complaint until the patient withdraws their allegations. Delete the patient's records to avoid future disputes. Discuss the complaint with other patients to obtain their opinions. None 5. A dental practice carries out daily and scheduled periodic testing of its vacuum steam sterilizer before starting clinical sessions. The dentist explains that these tests are essential to ensure the sterilization process is functioning correctly and complies with national decontamination standards. What is the main purpose of performing a daily and periodic test cycle on a dental autoclave? To clean debris from dental instruments before sterilization To verify that the autoclave is operating correctly and achieving effective sterilization To reduce the duration of the sterilization cycle To sharpen surgical instruments after repeated use To lubricate the autoclave chamber and instruments None 6. A 35-year-old healthy man requires multiple dental extractions under local anaesthesia. Before administering the anaesthetic, the dentist calculates the maximum safe dose of 2% lidocaine with adrenaline (1:80,000) to avoid local anaesthetic toxicity. What is the maximum recommended dose of lidocaine with adrenaline commonly used as a guide in healthy adults? There is no maximum dose About 10 mg/kg About 7 mg/kg About 4.5 mg/kg About 2 mg/kg None 7. A 24-year-old patient is referred after a routine panoramic radiograph reveals an unerupted mandibular third molar. The radiograph shows a well-defined, unilocular corticated radiolucency surrounding the crown of the impacted tooth and attached at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ). The patient is asymptomatic. What is the most likely diagnosis? Radicular cyst Dentigerous cyst Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) Residual cyst Lateral periodontal cyst None 8. A 9-year-old child is brought to the dental clinic because the maxillary right permanent central incisor has not erupted, whereas the contralateral central incisor erupted six months ago. Clinical examination reveals adequate space in the dental arch, and there is no history of trauma. What is the most appropriate first investigation? Cone beam computed tomography (CBCT) Periapical radiograph of the maxillary anterior region Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Ultrasound examination Pulp vitality testing of the unerupted tooth None 9. A 42-year-old man is undergoing a restorative dental procedure when a small restoration slips from the operator's hand and disappears into the patient's mouth. The patient immediately develops a persistent cough but is able to speak in full sentences and breathe comfortably. He shows no signs of cyanosis or airway obstruction. What is the most appropriate immediate management? Encourage the patient to continue coughing while monitoring their airway and breathing Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich manoeuvre) immediately Blind finger sweep of the oropharynx to retrieve the restoration Lay the patient flat and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) Give the patient water to help swallow the object None 10. A 42-year-old patient contacts the dental practice requesting a copy of their dental records, including clinical notes and radiographs, as they wish to seek treatment elsewhere. The patient provides appropriate identification and submits a valid request. Under UK data protection law, how should the dentist respond? Refuse the request because the records belong to the dental practice. Provide a copy of the dental records promptly, usually within one month, unless a lawful exemption applies. Release the records only after obtaining permission from the patient's new dentist. Provide only the radiographs and withhold the clinical notes. Charge a standard administration fee before releasing the records. None 11. A dental nurse confidentially informs the practice owner that a colleague has recently been treating patients while clearly impaired by alcohol. The colleague has been unsteady, smelled of alcohol during working hours, and their behaviour has raised concerns about patient safety. According to the General Dental Council (GDC), what is the most appropriate course of action? Keep the information confidential unless a patient makes a complaint. Speak to the colleague privately and take no further action if they promise to stop. Raise concerns through the appropriate channels immediately to protect patient safety. Ignore the concern because there is no direct evidence of patient harm. Discuss the issue openly with other members of the dental team before deciding what to do. None 12. A 68-year-old man taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation requires a simple extraction of a non-restorable mandibular premolar. His INR checked within the previous 24 hours is 3.2, and there are no other contraindications to treatment. According to current UK guidance, what is the most appropriate management of his anticoagulation? Stop warfarin 5 days before the extraction. Reduce the warfarin dose for 2 days before the extraction. Proceed with the extraction without interrupting warfarin if the INR is within the therapeutic range, using local haemostatic measures. Replace warfarin with low-molecular-weight heparin before the extraction. Postpone the extraction until warfarin therapy has been permanently discontinued. None 13. A 35-year-old patient undergoes root canal treatment on a mandibular first molar. During canal preparation, the dentist uses an irrigating solution that provides broad-spectrum antibacterial activity and is capable of dissolving necrotic and vital organic tissue within the root canal system. Which irrigant is most widely used for this purpose? Chlorhexidine gluconate Sodium hypochlorite Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) Normal saline Hydrogen peroxide None 14. A 56-year-old patient presents with generalized periodontitis, delayed healing following a recent tooth extraction, and recurrent oral infections. The medical history reveals a long-standing systemic condition that has been poorly controlled. The dentist explains that this condition significantly impairs wound healing and increases susceptibility to periodontal disease and infection. Which systemic condition is most strongly associated with these findings? Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus Essential hypertension Hypothyroidism Osteoarthritis Iron deficiency anaemia None 15. A 40-year-old patient contacts a dental practice requesting a copy of their dental records, including clinical notes and radiographs, to seek treatment elsewhere. The patient provides appropriate identification and submits the request in writing. According to UK data protection law, how should the dentist respond? Refuse the request because dental records are the property of the dental practice. Provide a copy of the dental records within the statutory time limit unless a lawful exemption applies. Release the records only after obtaining approval from the patient's new dentist. Provide only the radiographs and withhold the clinical notes. Release the records only after the patient pays an administrative fee. None 16. A 48-year-old patient presents with swelling in front of the right ear that becomes more noticeable during meals. Clinical examination suggests involvement of the largest major salivary gland, which produces a predominantly serous secretion. Which salivary gland is most likely involved? Sublingual gland Submandibular gland Parotid gland Minor labial salivary glands Palatine salivary glands None 17. A dental practice is reviewing its infection prevention and control procedures. During staff training, the lead clinician asks which single measure has the greatest impact on reducing the transmission of microorganisms between patients and healthcare workers. Why is hand hygiene considered the single most important measure for preventing cross-infection in dental practice? It removes or kills transient microorganisms on the hands, preventing their transmission between patients and the dental team. It sterilises the hands completely before every procedure. It eliminates the need for personal protective equipment (PPE). It prevents the formation of aerosols during dental procedures. It replaces the need for cleaning and sterilising instruments. None 18. A 35-year-old patient requires a periapical radiograph before root canal treatment. Before exposing the patient to ionising radiation, the dental team ensures that the radiographic examination is clinically indicated and that the expected diagnostic benefit outweighs the potential radiation risk, in accordance with the Ionising Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations (IR(ME)R). Which named duty holder is responsible for justifying that an individual exposure to ionising radiation will do more good than harm before it is taken? Referrer Operator Employer Practitioner Radiation Protection Adviser (RPA) None 19. A 58-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of severe pain affecting the right cheek. She describes the pain as burning and electric-shock-like, lasting only a few seconds and triggered by light touch while washing her face or brushing her teeth. Between episodes, she is pain-free, and neurological examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? Trigeminal neuralgia Temporomandibular disorder (TMD) Atypical odontalgia Acute irreversible pulpitis Post-herpetic neuralgia None 20. A 6-year-old child attends the dental clinic with multiple untreated carious teeth, poor oral hygiene, and recurrent dental pain. The accompanying parent has repeatedly failed to attend previous appointments and appears dismissive of the child's symptoms, stating that the child will "grow out of it." The dentist is concerned that the child's dental needs are being persistently neglected. What is the most appropriate action under UK safeguarding obligations? Document the concerns carefully, discuss them with the practice safeguarding lead, and refer to the appropriate safeguarding services if dental neglect is suspected. Continue providing treatment without recording the concerns. Discharge the child from the practice because of repeated missed appointments. Report the parent directly to the police without following safeguarding procedures. Wait until the child develops a dental abscess before taking further action. None 21. A dental nurse accidentally sustains a needlestick injury from a used local anaesthetic needle immediately after assisting with a dental procedure. The needle penetrates the skin of her finger. She is otherwise well and reports the injury immediately. What is the correct first action? Encourage the wound to bleed gently under running water and wash thoroughly with soap and water. Apply a tight pressure dressing immediately. Scrub the wound vigorously with a brush and antiseptic solution. Suck the wound to remove any contaminated blood. Cover the wound immediately and continue treating patients. None 22. A 30-year-old healthy man presents with mild to moderate pain 24 hours after a routine dental extraction. He has no history of asthma, peptic ulcer disease, renal impairment, or drug allergies. According to the British National Formulary (BNF), which is the most appropriate first-line analgesic for managing his pain? Paracetamol Ibuprofen Codeine phosphate Tramadol Morphine None 23. A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency dental clinic with a 3-day history of worsening pain and swelling associated with a lower molar tooth. On examination, he has severe trismus, bilateral swelling of the submandibular and sublingual regions, elevation of the floor of the mouth with a raised tongue, dysphagia, and increasing difficulty breathing. He appears anxious and is unable to handle his saliva. What is the most likely diagnosis? Acute suppurative parotitis Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy) Ludwig's angina Acute maxillary sinusitis Submandibular sialadenitis None 24. A 45-year-old patient is advised to undergo root canal treatment. Before obtaining consent, the dentist explains the procedure, its risks, benefits, alternatives, and the consequences of no treatment. The patient asks questions, demonstrates understanding, and agrees to proceed without pressure. For consent to dental treatment to be valid, which three elements must all be present? Capacity, adequate information, and voluntariness Written consent, a witness, and a signed treatment plan Capacity, payment of fees, and written consent Verbal consent, radiographs, and a treatment estimate Capacity, parental approval, and written consent None 25. A 62-year-old man develops sudden crushing central chest pain during a routine dental appointment. The pain radiates to his left arm, and he is breathless, pale, and sweating profusely. The dental team immediately stops treatment, calls for emergency medical assistance, and administers oxygen. What medication should be administered first? Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray Aspirin 300 mg (chewed) Salbutamol inhaler Adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly Glucagon None 26. A newly qualified overseas dentist wishes to practise dentistry in the United Kingdom. Before starting work, they must register with the statutory body responsible for regulating dental professionals and maintaining the official register of those entitled to practise. Which body is responsible for the statutory regulation of dental professionals and the maintenance of the dental register in the UK? British Dental Association (BDA) General Dental Council (GDC) Care Quality Commission (CQC) National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Faculty of General Dental Practice (FGDP) None 27. A dental nurse confidentially informs the practice owner that a colleague has been treating patients while apparently impaired by alcohol. The colleague has been unsteady, smelled of alcohol during working hours, and their behaviour has raised serious concerns about patient safety. According to the General Dental Council (GDC), what does the principle of raising concerns require? Raise the concern promptly through the appropriate channels to protect patients. Keep the information confidential unless a patient submits a complaint. Speak to the colleague privately and take no further action if they apologise. Wait until there is clear evidence that a patient has been harmed. Discuss the issue with other members of the dental team before deciding what to do. None 28. A 38-year-old patient with a documented history of severe latex allergy, including a previous episode of anaphylaxis, attends for dental treatment. The patient informs the dental team of the allergy during the pre-treatment assessment. What is the most important precaution before commencing treatment? Carry out the procedure using a completely latex-free environment and equipment. Administer prophylactic antihistamines before treatment. Use powdered latex gloves to reduce skin contact. Proceed with treatment as long as the patient has an adrenaline auto-injector. Delay treatment until the patient has undergone allergy testing. None 29. A 7-year-old child is brought for a routine dental examination. Clinical examination reveals multiple early enamel carious lesions despite good general health. The dentist explains that one particular oral microorganism plays a key role in the initiation of dental caries because of its ability to adhere to enamel and produce acid from dietary carbohydrates. Which organism is most strongly associated with the initiation of dental caries? Streptococcus mutans Lactobacillus acidophilus Actinomyces viscosus Porphyromonas gingivalis Candida albicans None 30. A 13-year-old patient is referred by their general dental practitioner for assessment of malocclusion. The orthodontist must determine whether the patient qualifies for NHS-funded orthodontic treatment based on the severity of the malocclusion. Which index is used in the UK to prioritise patients for orthodontic treatment need on the NHS? Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need (IOTN) DMFT Index Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) Community Periodontal Index (CPI) Dean's Fluorosis Index None 31. A dental practice manager is reviewing incidents that occurred over the past month to determine whether any must be reported under the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR). Which of the following workplace events is reportable under RIDDOR? A dentist sustains a minor paper cut that requires only a plaster. A dental nurse slips at work, fractures her wrist, and is unable to work for several weeks. A receptionist develops a mild headache during the working day and recovers without treatment. A patient experiences temporary discomfort following a local anaesthetic injection. A dental assistant accidentally tears a glove while cleaning instruments but suffers no injury. None 32. A 10-year-old child presents to the dental clinic 30 minutes after avulsion of a permanent maxillary central incisor during a football match. The tooth has been stored in cold milk and is ready for replantation. Which factor is the single most important determinant of the prognosis following replantation? Extra-alveolar dry time of the avulsed tooth Patient's age Degree of root development Type of splint used after replantation Administration of systemic antibiotics None 33. A 36-year-old patient discloses sensitive personal information during a dental appointment and asks the dentist not to share it with anyone. The dentist explains that patient information is confidential but that there are exceptional circumstances in which disclosure without consent may be necessary. Under what circumstance may a dentist breach patient confidentiality? When disclosure is required by law or is necessary in the public interest to protect individuals from a risk of serious harm. When a family member requests the information. When another dentist is interested in the patient's case for educational purposes. When discussing an interesting case with friends outside the practice. When the patient has unpaid dental fees. None 34. A 60-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of recurrent episodes of severe, electric shock-like pain affecting the right cheek. The pain lasts for a few seconds, is triggered by light touch while washing her face or brushing her teeth, and completely resolves between attacks. Clinical examination reveals no sensory loss or other neurological deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis? Trigeminal neuralgia Temporomandibular disorder (TMD) Atypical odontalgia Post-herpetic neuralgia Acute irreversible pulpitis None 35. A 58-year-old man who has smoked 20 cigarettes daily for 30 years attends for a routine dental examination. On intraoral examination, a persistent white patch is noted on the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion cannot be rubbed off and, after clinical assessment, cannot be attributed to any other defined disease or disorder. Which oral mucosal white lesion best fits this description? Leukoplakia Oral candidiasis Lichen planus Frictional keratosis Leukoedema None 36. A 68-year-old woman is referred for extraction of a non-restorable mandibular molar. Her medical history reveals long-term treatment for metastatic breast cancer with an antiresorptive medication. The dentist discusses the increased risk of delayed healing and exposed necrotic bone following extraction. Which patient group is at particular risk of developing medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ) following dental extractions? Patients taking oral antibiotics for recurrent infections Patients receiving intravenous bisphosphonates or high-dose antiresorptive therapy for malignancy Patients taking antihypertensive medication Patients using inhaled corticosteroids for asthma Patients taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism None 37. A 15-year-old patient attends the dental practice alone complaining of severe toothache. Following assessment, the dentist explains the proposed treatment, its benefits, risks, and alternatives. The patient demonstrates a clear understanding of the information, is able to weigh the options, and communicates a reasoned decision. Under UK law, how should consent be approached? Treatment cannot proceed without parental consent because the patient is under 16 years of age. Treatment may proceed if the patient is assessed as Gillick competent and gives valid consent. Consent must be obtained from both parents before any treatment is provided. Only emergency treatment can be provided without parental consent. The patient should be asked to return with a parent before any treatment is carried out. None 38. A 26-year-old patient is scheduled for the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar. The dentist explains that one potential complication is persistent numbness of the lower lip and chin due to injury to a nearby nerve. Which anatomical structure is most closely related to the roots of the mandibular third molar and is therefore at the greatest risk of injury? Lingual nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Long buccal nerve Mental nerve Auriculotemporal nerve None 39. A 35-year-old patient attends for a routine dental examination complaining of bleeding gums while brushing. Clinical examination reveals generalised marginal gingival redness, oedema, and bleeding on probing. Periodontal probing demonstrates no clinical attachment loss, and radiographs show no alveolar bone loss. What is the most likely diagnosis? Plaque-induced gingivitis Generalised Stage II periodontitis Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) Chronic periodontitis Desquamative gingivitis None 40. A 54-year-old patient requires pain relief following a simple dental extraction. His medical history includes a previous peptic ulcer and significant asthma that has previously worsened after taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Which analgesic should be avoided in this patient? Paracetamol Ibuprofen Codeine Dihydrocodeine Tramadol None 41. A 28-year-old patient attends for a routine dental examination. Bitewing radiographs reveal an interproximal carious lesion on a mandibular first molar extending into the dentine but remaining well clear of the pulp. The tooth is asymptomatic, responds normally to vitality testing, and there are no signs of periapical pathology. What is the most appropriate management in most cases? Monitor the lesion with preventive measures only Restore the tooth after removing the carious tissue Perform indirect pulp capping followed by review only Carry out root canal treatment before restoration Extract the tooth None 42. A 16-year-old patient with xerostomia secondary to medication presents with multiple new cervical and occlusal carious lesions. The dentist explains that the reduced salivary flow has significantly increased the patient's caries risk because saliva plays a vital protective role in maintaining oral health. Saliva contributes to caries resistance primarily through which mechanism? Buffering plaque acids and promoting remineralisation of enamel Increasing the adhesion of dental plaque to enamel surfaces Enhancing carbohydrate fermentation by oral bacteria Increasing enamel permeability to acids Stimulating demineralisation of tooth structure None 43. A 62-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of recurrent episodes of severe, electric shock-like pain affecting the right cheek. Each episode lasts only a few seconds and is triggered by light touch, tooth brushing, or washing her face. She is completely pain-free between attacks, and neurological examination reveals no sensory or motor deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis? Trigeminal neuralgia Post-herpetic neuralgia Temporomandibular disorder (TMD) Atypical odontalgia Acute irreversible pulpitis None 44. A 7-year-old child is brought to the emergency dental clinic after falling from a bicycle. Clinical examination reveals a fracture of the maxillary permanent central incisor. A small pink spot is visible in the centre of the fractured crown, with active bleeding from the exposed pulp. The tooth is not mobile, and there is no evidence of root fracture. What is the correct diagnosis and immediate management? Uncomplicated crown fracture – Restore the tooth with composite resin. Complicated crown fracture – Perform a partial (Cvek) pulpotomy followed by definitive restoration. Crown-root fracture – Extract the tooth immediately. Enamel fracture – Smooth the sharp edges and review. Root fracture – Splint the tooth for 4 weeks without pulp therapy. None 45. A 52-year-old woman presents with a several-month history of soreness affecting both cheeks, particularly when eating spicy foods. Intraoral examination reveals bilateral white lacy striae on the buccal mucosa with areas of erythema and shallow ulceration. No cervical lymphadenopathy is present. What is the most likely diagnosis? Oral lichen planus Oral candidiasis Leukoplakia Discoid lupus erythematosus Frictional keratosis None 46. A 48-year-old patient informs the dentist that they are transferring to another practice and requests a copy of their dental records, including clinical notes and radiographs. The patient submits a valid Subject Access Request (SAR). According to UK data protection law, how should the dentist respond? Refuse the request because the records belong to the dental practice. Provide a copy of the patient's records without undue delay, usually within one month, unless a lawful exemption applies. Release the records only after obtaining permission from the patient's new dentist. Provide only the radiographs and withhold the clinical notes. Charge a routine administration fee before releasing the records. None 47. A patient experiences an avoidable complication during a dental procedure that results in significant harm. The dentist recognises that an error has occurred and considers their professional responsibilities. According to the professional duty of candour, what should the dentist do? Inform the patient promptly, explain what happened honestly, apologise, discuss the likely consequences, and document the incident. Wait until the patient asks about the complication before discussing it. Inform the patient only if they decide to make a formal complaint. Avoid admitting that an error occurred to reduce the risk of litigation. Delegate the discussion to a receptionist after the patient leaves the practice. None 48. A newly registered dentist is about to begin clinical practice in the UK. Before seeing patients, they ask whether professional indemnity or insurance is optional or a legal requirement. What is the legal and professional position regarding indemnity or insurance for UK dental professionals? Professional indemnity or insurance is optional but recommended by the GDC. It is a legal requirement for all registered dental professionals to have appropriate indemnity or insurance covering their clinical practice. Only dentists working in private practice require indemnity or insurance. Only specialists are required to hold professional indemnity or insurance. Employers are solely responsible for providing indemnity, so individual professionals do not need their own arrangements. None 49. A 30-year-old man attends the oral and maxillofacial surgery clinic with complaints of temporomandibular joint discomfort. During examination, he is asked to protrude his mandible. The clinician explains that this movement is produced primarily by one of the muscles of mastication. Which muscle is primarily responsible for protrusion of the mandible? Masseter Temporalis Medial pterygoid Lateral pterygoid Buccinator None 50. A dental practice is reviewing its decontamination procedures to ensure compliance with HTM 01-05. The practice manager asks which sterilisation method is considered the standard of care for reusable dental instruments in UK primary care dental settings. Which sterilisation method is recommended? Steam sterilisation using an autoclave Dry heat sterilisation only Ethylene oxide gas sterilisation Chemical immersion in glutaraldehyde Ultraviolet (UV) light sterilisation None 51. A 45-year-old patient submits a formal written complaint regarding the dental treatment they received at a practice. The dentist wishes to respond in accordance with good professional practice and General Dental Council (GDC) guidance. What is the most appropriate course of action? Acknowledge the complaint promptly, investigate it fairly and objectively, respond openly and courteously, and follow the practice's complaints procedure. Ignore the complaint unless legal action is threatened. Discuss the complaint with other patients to determine whether they have had similar experiences. Refuse to respond until the patient withdraws the complaint. Alter the patient's clinical records before responding. None 52. A 30-year-old patient attends for a routine dental examination. They have no significant medical history and ask which fluoride toothpaste they should use to reduce their risk of dental caries. The dentist follows the recommendations in Delivering Better Oral Health (DBOH). According to UK preventive guidance, what fluoride concentration toothpaste is recommended for most adults? 500 ppm fluoride 1,000 ppm fluoride 1,350–1,500 ppm fluoride 2,800 ppm fluoride 5,000 ppm fluoride None 53. A 13-year-old patient is referred to the orthodontic department because of irregular upper front teeth. Following clinical examination, the orthodontist needs to determine whether the patient meets the criteria for NHS-funded orthodontic treatment. Which index is used in the UK to prioritise patients for orthodontic treatment need on the NHS? Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need (IOTN) Dental Aesthetic Index (DAI) DMFT Index Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) Dean's Fluorosis Index None 54. A dental practice plans to introduce a new surface disinfectant for instrument decontamination. Before the product is used by the dental team, the practice manager reviews the legal requirements under the Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) Regulations. What must the dental practice do before using the hazardous chemical? Carry out a COSHH risk assessment and implement appropriate control measures. Use the chemical immediately if it is CE/UKCA marked. Allow staff to decide individually whether protective equipment is required. Use the chemical only after obtaining written consent from all patients. Store the chemical in an unlocked cupboard for easy access. None 55. A newly qualified dentist has recently joined a dental practice in the UK. During induction, the practice owner explains that all dentists and dental care professionals (DCPs) must comply with the professional standards issued by the statutory regulator. Which document sets out the standards of conduct, performance, and ethics that all GDC registrants in the UK must follow? GDC Standards for the Dental Team NHS Constitution Delivering Better Oral Health (DBOH) HTM 01-05 BNF (British National Formulary) None 56. A 58-year-old man suddenly collapses in the dental practice waiting room. He is unresponsive and not breathing normally. A member of the dental team immediately calls for help and begins high-quality chest compressions. What additional step should be taken as soon as possible? Attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) and follow its voice prompts. Administer 300 mg aspirin orally. Give glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray. Place the patient in the recovery position. Wait for the ambulance before providing further treatment. None 57. A 40-year-old patient informs the dentist that they are moving to another dental practice and requests a copy of their dental records, including radiographs and clinical notes. The patient submits a valid Subject Access Request (SAR). Under UK data protection law, how should the dentist respond? Refuse the request because the dental records belong to the practice. Provide a copy of the patient's records without undue delay, normally within one month, unless a lawful exemption applies. Release the records only after receiving written permission from the patient's new dentist. Provide only the radiographs and withhold the clinical notes. Charge a routine administration fee before providing the records. None 58. A 42-year-old patient attends for assessment of persistent pain associated with a lower molar. Before taking a periapical radiograph, the dental team ensures that the exposure is clinically justified and that the expected diagnostic benefit outweighs the potential radiation risk, in accordance with the Ionising Radiation (Medical Exposure) Regulations (IR(ME)R). Under IR(ME)R, which named duty holder is responsible for justifying that an individual exposure to ionising radiation will do more good than harm before it is taken? Employer Referrer Operator Practitioner Radiation Protection Adviser (RPA) None 59. A 62-year-old patient presents with a non-carious cervical lesion on the buccal surface of a premolar. The dentist chooses a restorative material that chemically bonds to enamel and dentine, releases fluoride, and can also be used as a cavity liner or base beneath restorations. Which dental material is most appropriate? Glass ionomer cement (GIC) Composite resin Dental amalgam Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE) Calcium hydroxide None 60. A 34-year-old healthy man presents with a spreading odontogenic infection associated with a mandibular molar. He has facial swelling, fever (38.5°C), and malaise. Drainage of the source of infection has been initiated, and there is no history of penicillin allergy. According to current UK dental guidance, which is the recommended first-line antibiotic? Amoxicillin Metronidazole Co-amoxiclav Clindamycin Clarithromycin None 61. A 42-year-old patient develops sudden wheezing, facial swelling, widespread urticaria, and hypotension within minutes of taking amoxicillin following a dental procedure. The patient is anxious, struggling to breathe, and appears pale. What is the immediate drug of choice and route of administration? Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 1:1000 (1 mg/mL) Intravenous hydrocortisone Oral chlorphenamine Intravenous salbutamol Subcutaneous adrenaline (epinephrine) None 62. A dental practice is conducting annual infection prevention and control training. The lead dentist asks the team which single measure has the greatest impact on reducing the spread of microorganisms between patients, staff, and the clinical environment. Why is hand hygiene considered the single most important measure for preventing cross-infection in dental practice? It removes transient microorganisms from the hands, interrupting the chain of infection and preventing transmission between patients and healthcare workers. It sterilises the hands completely before every procedure. It eliminates the need to wear gloves during treatment. It prevents the production of aerosols during dental procedures. It replaces the need for cleaning and sterilising reusable instruments. None 63. A 49-year-old patient attends for a routine periodontal assessment. During the Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE), the dentist records a Code 4 in the lower left sextant. What does a BPE Code 4 indicate? Bleeding on probing only Calculus or plaque-retentive factors with pockets less than 3.5 mm Probing depths of 3.5–5.5 mm (black band partially visible) Probing depths of greater than 5.5 mm (black band completely disappears) Furcation involvement only None 64. A 36-year-old patient with a documented severe latex allergy and a previous episode of anaphylaxis attends for a dental extraction. The dentist reviews the patient's medical history before commencing treatment. What is the most important precaution? Treat the patient in a completely latex-free environment using latex-free gloves, equipment, and materials. Premedicate the patient with antihistamines before treatment. Use powdered latex gloves to minimise direct skin contact. Proceed with treatment as long as an adrenaline auto-injector is available. Delay treatment until the patient has undergone repeat allergy testing. None 65. A 55-year-old man is scheduled for a routine dental extraction. His platelet count is normal, but preoperative blood tests reveal a haematological abnormality that significantly increases his risk of prolonged postoperative bleeding. Which haematological abnormality would most increase the risk of prolonged bleeding, independent of platelet count? Prolonged International Normalised Ratio (INR) due to impaired coagulation Elevated haemoglobin concentration Increased haematocrit Mild neutropenia Eosinophilia None 66. A dentist is preparing to carry out a routine restorative procedure using a high-speed handpiece that is expected to generate spatter, but not a high-risk aerosol-generating procedure. The dentist selects appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) in accordance with UK infection prevention guidance. Which of the following best describes the appropriate PPE? Disposable gloves, fluid-resistant surgical mask, protective eyewear or visor, and disposable clinical apron or gown. Gloves only. Protective eyewear and apron only. FFP3 respirator without gloves or eye protection. Surgical mask only. None 67. A 25-year-old patient is referred for the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar. During the consent process, the oral surgeon explains that one potential complication is persistent numbness of the lower lip and chin due to injury to a nearby nerve. Which anatomical structure is most closely related to the roots of the mandibular third molar and is therefore at the greatest risk of injury? Lingual nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Long buccal nerve Mental nerve Auriculotemporal nerve None 68. A 52-year-old patient presents with generalised Stage III periodontitis, characterised by deep periodontal pockets, clinical attachment loss, and radiographic bone loss. Microbiological analysis identifies Porphyromonas gingivalis, Tannerella forsythia, and Treponema denticola as the predominant pathogens. Which bacterial group is most strongly associated with severe periodontitis? Red complex Orange complex Purple complex Yellow complex Green complex None 69. A newly qualified dentist has successfully registered with the General Dental Council (GDC) and is about to begin clinical practice in a mixed NHS/private dental practice. During induction, the practice manager asks about the legal requirement for professional indemnity. What is the legal and professional position regarding indemnity or insurance for UK dental professionals? Professional indemnity or insurance is recommended but optional. All GDC registrants must have appropriate indemnity or insurance arrangements covering the work they undertake. Only dentists working in private practice require professional indemnity. Professional indemnity is required only for oral surgeons and specialists. The employer's insurance always covers every dental professional, so individual indemnity is unnecessary. None 70. A 29-year-old healthy man attends the dental clinic with pain from acute irreversible pulpitis. He has no history of asthma, peptic ulcer disease, renal disease, or drug allergies. The dentist decides to prescribe analgesia in accordance with the British National Formulary (BNF). Which is the most appropriate first-line analgesic for mild to moderate dental pain in an otherwise healthy adult? Ibuprofen Paracetamol Codeine phosphate Tramadol Morphine None 71. A 28-year-old patient returns 3 days after extraction of a mandibular first molar complaining of severe throbbing pain radiating to the ear. The pain began 48 hours after the extraction and has progressively worsened. Clinical examination reveals halitosis, an empty extraction socket with exposed bone, and little surrounding swelling. The patient is afebrile. What is the most likely diagnosis and appropriate management? Dry socket (alveolar osteitis) – Irrigate the socket, place a medicated dressing if required, provide analgesia, and reassure the patient. Acute osteomyelitis – Prescribe intravenous antibiotics immediately. Acute apical abscess – Perform root canal treatment on the extracted tooth. Postoperative infection – Prescribe antibiotics alone without local treatment. Normal postoperative healing – Reassure the patient only. None 72. A dental practice is undergoing a routine inspection to ensure compliance with UK infection prevention and decontamination standards. The inspector asks the practice manager which guidance document forms the primary standard for the decontamination of reusable dental instruments in primary care. Which document is the main UK guidance? HTM 01-05: Decontamination in Primary Care Dental Practices Delivering Better Oral Health (DBOH) GDC Standards for the Dental Team BNF (British National Formulary) IR(ME)R 2017 None 73. A 58-year-old patient presents with generalised periodontitis, delayed healing following a recent dental extraction, and recurrent periodontal abscesses. The medical history reveals a chronic systemic disease that has been poorly controlled for several years. Which systemic condition most significantly impairs wound healing and increases susceptibility to periodontal disease and infection? Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus Essential hypertension Hyperthyroidism Osteoarthritis Iron deficiency anaemia None 74. A community dentist is conducting an oral health survey to assess the caries experience of adults in a local population. The dentist records the number of decayed, missing, and filled permanent teeth for each participant to calculate a standard epidemiological index. Which index is used for this purpose? DMFT Index Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) Community Periodontal Index (CPI) Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need (IOTN) Dean's Fluorosis Index None 75. A 12-year-old patient presents with deep occlusal caries in a vital mandibular first permanent molar. During caries excavation, a small mechanical pulp exposure occurs. Before treatment, the patient reported only brief pain to cold stimuli that resolved immediately, consistent with reversible pulpitis. The tooth is restorable, and haemostasis is achieved easily. What is the most appropriate biological treatment? Direct pulp cap with a calcium silicate cement (e.g., MTA or Biodentine) followed by a definitive restoration. Pulpectomy followed by root canal treatment. Extraction of the tooth. Leave the pulp exposure untreated and place a temporary restoration. Apexification with calcium hydroxide. None 76. A dentist who has recently qualified overseas wishes to begin practising in the United Kingdom. Before treating patients, they must register with the statutory organisation responsible for regulating the dental profession and maintaining the official register of those legally entitled to practise. Which body is responsible for the statutory regulation of dental professionals and the maintenance of the dental register in the UK? British Dental Association (BDA) General Dental Council (GDC) Care Quality Commission (CQC) National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) NHS England None 77. A 24-year-old patient with a known history of asthma develops progressive wheeze, shortness of breath, and difficulty speaking during a dental procedure. The patient uses their own salbutamol inhaler, but there is no significant improvement after repeated doses. What is the most appropriate next step? Administer oxygen, use the practice's salbutamol inhaler with a spacer if needed, and call 999 immediately. Continue treatment and reassure the patient. Give intramuscular adrenaline immediately. Place the patient flat and wait for the symptoms to settle. Give oral antihistamines and observe the patient. None 78. A 48-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing, painless swelling in the region of the left parotid gland that has gradually increased in size over the past year. On examination, the mass is firm, mobile, well-circumscribed, and there is no facial nerve weakness or cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most common benign salivary gland tumour, occurring most frequently in the parotid gland? Pleomorphic adenoma Warthin tumour Mucoepidermoid carcinoma Adenoid cystic carcinoma Acinic cell carcinoma None 79. A 70-year-old woman has been taking oral alendronic acid for osteoporosis for the past 5 years. She requires extraction of a non-restorable mandibular molar. She has no history of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ), radiotherapy to the jaws, or malignancy. According to current UK risk-management principles, what is the most appropriate approach? Avoid extraction because it is absolutely contraindicated in all patients taking bisphosphonates. Stop the bisphosphonate for 3 months before extraction and restart it after healing. Proceed with the extraction after discussing the risk of MRONJ, obtaining informed consent, using an atraumatic technique, and ensuring appropriate postoperative follow-up. Prescribe prophylactic antibiotics alone and avoid any surgical intervention. Refer every patient taking oral bisphosphonates for hospital extraction regardless of risk. None 80. A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency dental clinic with a 2-day history of worsening toothache from a lower molar. He now has severe trismus, bilateral swelling of the submandibular region and floor of the mouth, a raised tongue, difficulty swallowing, and increasing difficulty breathing. He appears toxic and is unable to handle his saliva. What is the most likely diagnosis? Ludwig's angina Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy) Acute parotitis Submandibular sialadenitis Acute maxillary sinusitis None 81. A 29-year-old patient attends for a routine dental examination. A bitewing radiograph reveals an interproximal carious lesion extending into the dentine but not reaching the pulp on the distal surface of a mandibular first premolar. The tooth is asymptomatic, responds normally to vitality testing, and is restorable. In most cases, what is the most appropriate management? Operative caries removal followed by placement of a definitive restoration. Fluoride toothpaste alone with annual review. Fissure sealant without caries removal. Root canal treatment before restoration. Extraction of the tooth. None 82. A dental practice performs daily and scheduled periodic test cycles on its steam steriliser before processing reusable instruments. The practice manager explains that these tests are required under HTM 01-05 to ensure the steriliser is functioning correctly. What is the main purpose of performing these daily and periodic test cycles? To verify that the autoclave is functioning correctly and consistently achieving effective sterilisation. To clean the inside of the autoclave chamber. To sharpen dental instruments before sterilisation. To reduce the cycle time for instrument sterilisation. To determine whether instruments require lubrication. None 83. An 80-year-old patient attends for a routine dental examination. They take multiple medications for hypertension, depression, and Parkinson's disease, and complain of a persistent dry mouth. They also have limited manual dexterity, making effective toothbrushing difficult. Clinical examination shows several exposed root surfaces and an increased risk of root caries. Which combination of measures is most appropriate? High-fluoride toothpaste (5,000 ppm), saliva substitutes or stimulants, powered toothbrush, and regular preventive dental reviews. Stop all prescribed medications and use a standard fluoride toothpaste. Use alcohol-containing mouthwash three times daily and avoid fluoride toothpaste. Prescribe antibiotics and review annually. Recommend frequent sugary drinks to relieve dry mouth symptoms. None 84. A 35-year-old patient complains of bleeding gums during toothbrushing. Clinical examination reveals generalised marginal gingival redness, swelling, and bleeding on probing. Periodontal probing shows no clinical attachment loss, and radiographs demonstrate no alveolar bone loss. What is the most likely diagnosis? Plaque-induced gingivitis Generalised Stage II periodontitis Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) Generalised aggressive periodontitis Desquamative gingivitis None 85. A 7-year-old child attends for a routine dental examination. The child has no previous history of dental caries, maintains good oral hygiene, and is considered to be at standard caries risk. The dentist follows UK preventive guidance (Delivering Better Oral Health) when planning preventive care. According to UK guidance, how often should fluoride varnish (22,600 ppm sodium fluoride) be applied? Once every 2 years Once a year At least twice a year Every month Only if a carious lesion develops None 86. A 42-year-old patient requires extraction of a severely broken molar. Before obtaining consent, the dentist explains the diagnosis, treatment options, benefits, risks, and the consequences of no treatment. The patient demonstrates understanding, asks relevant questions, and decides to proceed without any pressure. For consent to dental treatment to be valid, which three elements must all be present? Capacity, adequate information, and voluntariness Written consent, a witness, and payment of treatment fees Capacity, a signed consent form, and radiographs Verbal consent, a treatment plan, and a witness Capacity, parental approval, and written consent None 87. A 58-year-old man with chronic liver disease is scheduled for multiple dental extractions. During the preoperative assessment, the dentist considers the medical implications of his condition and whether any modifications to treatment are required. Which two problems are the main reasons why dental management may need to be modified in patients with chronic liver disease? Impaired haemostasis and altered drug metabolism Hypertension and hyperglycaemia Increased salivary flow and delayed tooth eruption Polycythaemia and increased bone density Hyperthyroidism and nephrotoxicity None 88. A dental practice is reviewing its infection prevention and control protocols to ensure compliance with HTM 01-05. During staff training, the lead dentist asks which sterilisation method is regarded as the standard of care for reusable dental instruments in UK primary care. Which sterilisation method is recommended? Steam sterilisation using a validated autoclave Dry heat sterilisation only Ethylene oxide gas sterilisation Chemical immersion in glutaraldehyde Ultraviolet (UV) light sterilisation None 89. A 24-year-old patient is referred to the oral surgery clinic for assessment of impacted mandibular third molars. The clinician also wishes to evaluate the overall jaws for any associated pathology and assess the relationship of the impacted teeth to adjacent anatomical structures before treatment planning. Which radiographic view is most appropriate for the initial assessment of impacted third molars, jaw fractures, and overall jaw pathology? Panoramic radiograph (Orthopantomogram, OPG) Periapical radiograph Bitewing radiograph Maxillary occlusal radiograph Lateral cephalometric radiograph None 90. A 12-year-old patient attends an orthodontic assessment because of irregular upper front teeth. During the clinical examination, the orthodontist evaluates the relationship between the upper and lower first permanent molars, as this forms the basis of describing the patient's occlusion. Which classification describes the spatial relationship of the first permanent molars and is fundamental to orthodontic assessment? Angle's classification of malocclusion Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need (IOTN) Ackerman-Proffit classification Skeletal classification by ANB angle Simon's classification None 91. A 13-year-old patient attends an orthodontic clinic because of crowded upper incisors. During the examination, the orthodontist records the relationship of the maxillary and mandibular first permanent molars, as this forms the basis for describing the patient's occlusion. Which classification describes the spatial relationship of the first permanent molars and is fundamental to orthodontic assessment? Angle's Classification of Malocclusion British Standards Institute (BSI) Incisor Classification Index of Orthodontic Treatment Need (IOTN) Ackerman–Proffit Classification Skeletal Classification (Class I, II, III) None 92. A 46-year-old patient submits a formal written complaint after receiving dental treatment, stating they are unhappy with the outcome. The dentist wishes to respond in accordance with General Dental Council (GDC) guidance and good professional practice. What is the most appropriate action? Acknowledge the complaint promptly, investigate it fairly and objectively, respond openly and courteously, and follow the practice's complaints procedure. Ignore the complaint unless the patient threatens legal action. Refuse to respond until the patient withdraws the complaint. Alter the clinical records before replying to support the dentist's position. Discuss the patient's complaint with other patients to obtain their opinions. None 93. A 27-year-old patient with a history of epilepsy suddenly develops a generalised tonic-clonic seizure during a dental procedure. The seizure begins unexpectedly while the patient is in the dental chair. What is the most appropriate initial management? Stop treatment, remove instruments, protect the patient from injury, and do not attempt to restrain them or place anything in their mouth. Insert a mouth prop between the teeth to prevent tongue biting. Physically restrain the patient's limbs until the seizure stops. Immediately administer oral glucose. Begin chest compressions immediately. None 94. A 56-year-old woman presents with a burning sensation in her mouth, particularly when eating spicy foods. Clinical examination reveals bilateral white lacy (reticular) striae on the buccal mucosa with areas of erythema and superficial ulceration. The lesions are symmetrical and cannot be wiped away. What is the most likely diagnosis? Erosive oral lichen planus Oral leukoplakia Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis Frictional keratosis Discoid lupus erythematosus None 95. A 62-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of severe, burning, electric-shock-like pain affecting the right cheek. Each episode lasts a few seconds and is triggered by light touch, such as washing her face or brushing her teeth. Between attacks, she is pain-free, and neurological examination is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? Trigeminal neuralgia Temporomandibular disorder (TMD) Acute irreversible pulpitis Post-herpetic neuralgia Atypical facial pain (persistent idiopathic facial pain) None 96. A 54-year-old patient requires a three-unit fixed bridge to replace a missing premolar. The dentist needs an impression material that provides excellent detail reproduction, high dimensional stability, and allows the cast to be poured after a delay without significant distortion. Which impression material is most suitable? Addition silicone (polyvinyl siloxane, PVS) Alginate . Impression compound Zinc oxide eugenol impression paste Impression plaster None 97. A 67-year-old man attends for an elective crown preparation. During the medical history, he reports that he was admitted to hospital 2 weeks ago with a myocardial infarction and is currently recovering under the care of a cardiologist. He is taking dual antiplatelet therapy and feels well today. Which condition is a contraindication to elective dental treatment because of the high risk of cardiac complications and therefore warrants postponement? Recent myocardial infarction (within the previous 6 weeks) Well-controlled hypertension Stable angina controlled with medication A heart murmur without symptoms Controlled atrial fibrillation None 98. A 72-year-old patient who has worn a maxillary complete denture for several years attends complaining of mild soreness beneath the denture. The patient admits to wearing the denture continuously, including overnight. Clinical examination reveals generalised erythema of the palatal mucosa confined to the denture-bearing area, without ulceration. What is the most likely diagnosis? Denture stomatitis (chronic atrophic candidiasis) Erythroplakia Oral lichen planus Nicotinic stomatitis Allergic contact stomatitis None 99. A general dental practitioner examines a 45-year-old patient with a complex mandibular lesion that requires advanced oral and maxillofacial surgical management. The dentist recognises that the diagnosis and treatment are beyond their competence and scope of practice. According to GDC guidance, what is the most appropriate professional action? Explain the situation to the patient and refer them promptly to an appropriately qualified clinician or specialist. Attempt the treatment to gain experience after obtaining the patient's consent. Delay treatment until the condition worsens and an emergency referral is required. Advise the patient to seek treatment elsewhere without providing a formal referral. Begin treatment and refer only if complications occur. None 100. A 58-year-old man presents with swollen, spongy, bleeding gums and complains that his extraction socket is healing poorly. He also reports easy bruising, fatigue, and a diet lacking in fresh fruits and vegetables. Clinical examination reveals generalised gingival swelling with spontaneous bleeding. Which vitamin deficiency most likely explains these findings? Vitamin C deficiency Vitamin D deficiency Vitamin K deficiency Vitamin B12 deficiency Folic acid deficiency None Time's up